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Do we live in a postmodern period that is fundamentally different from a modern one?

My understanding is very rusty, can somebody please put the answer to this in layman's terms?

3 Answers

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    8 years ago
    Favourite answer

    To be absolute--yes, because 'modernists' did not shun the idea of 'knowing that one knows', as post modernists do:

    "Postmodernism is difficult to define, because to define it would violate the postmodernist's premise that no definite terms, boundaries, or absolute truths exist."

    http://www.allaboutphilosophy.org/postmodernism.ht...

    So the answer to your question is a 'modern' one. A post modernist answer would be such as, "Maybe, maybe not; who can say?"

    If the American colonists, or Abraham Lincoln, were post modernists, there would not have been the US because that Congress agreed on absolute truths: "We hold these truths to be self-evident...", and Lincoln would have been wishy washy, believing the south might be right about slavery.

  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    Yes. the postmodern period is after World War 2. It is different from the modern period in that it fosters a skeptical view of the arts, a depressive view, due at least in part to the overwhelming loss of life in the World Wars..

  • 8 years ago

    The answer is live in the now and **** the what ifs.

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