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Pitching a perfect game?
Okay im asking this to settle a bet.
If a batter hits 2 balls foul and they count as a strike, then the pitcher strikes him out after that, does that count as a strike on the pitchers stats?
Thanks
7 Answers
- 1 decade agoFavourite answer
Yes. it doesn't matter if the first two strikes come from a foul ball, a called strike, or a swinging strike. It also doesn't matter if the third strike is a swinging or called strike or a foul bunt attempt. It is a strikeout, so the pitcher gets credited with a strikeout.
- FozzyLv 71 decade ago
I'm a bit confused.
How exactly does this relate to a perfect game?
I'm guessing you mean how those foul balls affect the pitcher's pitch count and how many balls and strikes he threw. Any pitch that is hit, whether foul or fair, is counted as a strike. The only pitches counted as balls would be pitches that were either called a ball by the umpire or where a hitter gets hit by a pitch. There is never an assumption made as to what a pitch would have been had a player not swung.
- 1 decade ago
Yes, of course. First foul ball, 0 - 1. Second foul ball, 0 - 2. Hitter swings and misses on the next pitch, strike out, 0 - 3.
Yes, it counts as a strike and strike out, it goes into the stat sheet as a "K".
Source(s): Go Rays! - Anonymous1 decade ago
yeah its not a hit since it didn't go fair so it has to be a strike out. kinda obvious.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
yes
- Anonymous1 decade ago
yeah duhhh